I know as demonstrated that in the Nuremberg Trials that the excuse of "I was just following orders" is no defense to war crimes or atrocities. I was wondering out of curiosity, what if the person doing the crimes was coerced into doing the crimes or was forced into doing it? For example: One is ordered by a superior to kill and loot innocents, the soldiers are threatened if they do not obey, the superiors will have them and their families killed as traitors, and some are killed as examples. Would they still be held responsible for their actions?